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Post by ydoaPs on Nov 27, 2009 16:52:30 GMT
I've been talking about this for ages. ESPECIALLY within the context of the rest of Matthew it is clear here that Jesus did not yet fulfill the Law. Jesus, according to the author of Matthew, you are saved through works.
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naz
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Post by naz on Nov 27, 2009 18:20:06 GMT
Great topic Zan. Is this the work of "Theoretical BS"?
What he talks about is the basis for the modern Nazorean movement I was a part of (from which the s/n Nazorai derives).
The entire idea that Christ "fulfilled the Law" by dying on the cross is preposterous and has no scriptural support whatsoever.
BUT, there is much more that needs to be looked at. Just a brief outline:
1. What was Jesus' true understanding of the Law? It is clear that he had a hugely different view of it than did his religious contemporaries. In fact in the GoJ he most severely distances himself from Jewish law altogether. We also know that the Ebionites who were early followers of Jesus rejected parts of the Law as being priestly corruptions. Is it possible Jesus shared this view?
2. Even if the Law does stand intact what are the obligations of the Law with regard to Jewish and Gentile believers?
3. What effects do Jesus' intensifications of the Law have on its earlier more literal (and primitive) applications?
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Post by ydoaPs on Nov 27, 2009 18:33:30 GMT
Great topic Zan. Is this the work of theoretical BS? No. He's friends with Scott, though. He's got a lot of great videos as well. His YouTube name is DasAmericanAtheist. Such is what the rational among us have been saying for ages. It's not really fair to mix and match unrelated Gospels. Sure you can do it with Luke and Acts, but not Matthew and John. That'd be like me trying to answer a question by mixing the words of you and SuperSport; you have to take each author what they say. John is so different from Matthew, that it's not even in the same group(Synoptic Gospels); it's the only Gospel, in fact, that has a divine Jesus. That being said, it is very clear that Jesus's view of the Gospel was very different. He even makes it more strict in Matthew 5. If you want to make a case of what Jesus thought based on John, that's great; just don't try to make some weird amalgam with Matthew. This is a great question. AFAIK, Jesus never talked about the Gentiles(positively, anyway). My understanding is that he was a apocalyptic Jewish reformer.
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naz
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Post by naz on Nov 27, 2009 18:48:28 GMT
It's not really fair to mix and match unrelated Gospels. Sure you can do it with Luke and Acts, but not Matthew and John. That'd be like me trying to answer a question by mixing the words of you and SuperSport; you have to take each author what they say. John is so different from Matthew, that it's not even in the same group(Synoptic Gospels); it's the only Gospel, in fact, that has a divine Jesus. I look at them all simply as sources of information on Jesus' thinking. I look at the synoptics as Jesus' exoteric teaching within the framework of Judaism and the material in John as his esoteric teaching meant for his inner core of disciples--the place where he basically let it all hang out. I do the same thing. If I am in an environment filled with conservative Christians I won't talk the same way I will in a forum like this. My ideas are the same but I will present them differently.
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Post by ydoaPs on Nov 27, 2009 18:50:36 GMT
My ideas are the same but I will present them differently. What if they're not the same?
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naz
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Post by naz on Nov 27, 2009 18:56:42 GMT
My ideas are the same but I will present them differently. What if they're not the same? I mean my own ideas are the same in both venues. Not the same as the people I'm talking to.
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Post by ydoaPs on Nov 27, 2009 19:03:23 GMT
What if they're not the same? I mean my own ideas are the same in both venues. Not the same as the people I'm talking to. I meant the ideas presented in the gospels. I assumed your "same ideas" carried over in your analogy. What if the ideas in the synoptic vs John aren't just worded differently, but are different entirely?
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naz
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Post by naz on Nov 27, 2009 19:10:37 GMT
I mean my own ideas are the same in both venues. Not the same as the people I'm talking to. I meant the ideas presented in the gospels. I assumed your "same ideas" carried over in your analogy. What if the ideas in the synoptic vs John aren't just worded differently, but are different entirely? Possible but I have no good reason to think that. It is possible to connect the dots.
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Post by revnkev on Dec 10, 2009 19:14:11 GMT
Therefore speak I to them in parables: because they seeing see not; and hearing they hear not, neither do they understand. And in them is fulfilled the prophecy of Isaiah, which saith, By hearing ye shall hear, and shall not understand; and seeing ye shall see, and shall not perceive.
I fail to see which laws will not be fulfilled if one walks in perfect love?
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naz
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Post by naz on Dec 10, 2009 19:19:16 GMT
Therefore speak I to them in parables: because they seeing see not; and hearing they hear not, neither do they understand. And in them is fulfilled the prophecy of Isaiah, which saith, By hearing ye shall hear, and shall not understand; and seeing ye shall see, and shall not perceive. I fail to see which laws will not be fulfilled if one walks in perfect love? How about the laws which say you have to kill people for violating some of the laws?
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Post by revnkev on Dec 10, 2009 19:34:57 GMT
To fulfill the law is not the same as doing away with the law.
This is part of how Christ fulfilled the law but sacrificing himself in their place because humanly it is not possible to obey and follow the law.
I am interested in your reasoning of why the law exists?
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naz
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Post by naz on Dec 10, 2009 19:43:26 GMT
Agreed.
Jewish law is not that hard to follow. Orthodox Jews do it every day. What is hard is following Jesus' commandments.
I'm not really sure. It's hard to posit it is a purely human invention. But I also have trouble thinking it all comes from God. It definitely served/serves a purpose in maintaining the distinctness of the Jewish people.
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Post by ydoaPs on Dec 10, 2009 19:43:49 GMT
To fulfill the law is not the same as doing away with the law. And Jesus didn't do either. In fact, he made the Law more strict and at the same time said when he will fulfill the Law. He said to follow the letter of the Law until he fulfills it when Heaven and Earth pass away. He will do away with the Law when he fulfills it, he just hasn't done it yet. He didn't. He will fulfill it in the second coming. Jesus taught very explicitly on works salvation(at least according to the author of Matthew).
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Post by revnkev on Dec 10, 2009 19:57:08 GMT
To fulfill the law is not the same as doing away with the law. And Jesus didn't do either. In fact, he made the Law more strict and at the same time said when he will fulfill the Law. He said to follow the letter of the Law until he fulfills it when Heaven and Earth pass away. He will do away with the Law when he fulfills it, he just hasn't done it yet. He didn't. He will fulfill it in the second coming. Jesus taught very explicitly on works salvation(at least according to the author of Matthew). I need scripture references for interpretation.
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Post by ydoaPs on Dec 10, 2009 20:02:25 GMT
And Jesus didn't do either. In fact, he made the Law more strict and at the same time said when he will fulfill the Law. He said to follow the letter of the Law until he fulfills it when Heaven and Earth pass away. He will do away with the Law when he fulfills it, he just hasn't done it yet. He didn't. He will fulfill it in the second coming. Jesus taught very explicitly on works salvation(at least according to the author of Matthew). I need scripture references for interpretation. For which part?
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